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Tuesday, October 29, 2013

 

φ1fφ

Given
  φ1(f(φ(w)))=w2=g(w)
What is f(z) in terms of g ?

Let
  z=φ(w))φ1(z)=wφ1(f(φ(w)))=g(w)f(φ(w))=φ(g(w))
Why is \displaystyle \varphi^{-1} \circ f \circ \varphi interesting ?

It's rather easy to show that the function \displaystyle p(z) = \varphi^{-1} \circ f \circ \varphi behaves the same as \displaystyle f(z) under iteration. In other words,
  \begin{aligned} p^n = \varphi^{-1} \circ f^n \circ \varphi \end{aligned}
So instead of studying p, which can be a bit more complicated, the problem can be reduced to the study of f; or vice-versa.

In general, given any quadratic polynomials in \mathbb{C}
  \begin{aligned} p(z) = az^2 + bz + d \\ \end{aligned}
Let
  \begin{aligned} f(z) &= z^2 + c \\ c &= ad + \frac{b}{2} - (\frac{b}{2})^2 \\ \varphi(z) &= az + \frac{b}{2} \\ \end{aligned}
It can be readily verified that
  \begin{aligned} p &= \varphi^{-1} \circ f \circ \varphi \\ f &= \varphi \circ p \circ \varphi^{-1} \\ \end{aligned}
Furthermore,
  \begin{aligned} p^n &= \varphi^{-1} \circ f^n \circ \varphi \\ f^n &= \varphi \circ p^n \circ \varphi^{-1} \\ \end{aligned}

More info at Analysis of a Complex Kind.


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